AITA for telling my friend that his wife has every right to divorce him after what he did
The narrator describes a friend (27M) whose behavior changed significantly after marriage to his wife (24F).
Before marriage, the friend was different, but afterward, he began to express anger easily, frequently yelling at his wife, even in front of family and friends when plans changed.
A specific incident occurred during a group dinner where the friend grabbed his wife's hand and slammed it on the table after she replied to something he said; she left shortly after, and he dismissed her distress by calling her a 'crybaby.' This incident led the narrator to recognize a serious problem and develop a strong negative feeling toward his friend.
More recently, the friend falsely accused his wife of cheating after overhearing her giving directions to a delivery driver, leading to her requesting a divorce, leaving the narrator to question if their blunt response to the friend was appropriate.
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The narrator is currently in a conflict where they supported the wife's decision to seek a divorce following severe emotional and physical mistreatment by the husband.
The central tension lies between the narrator's belief that the wife's reaction to the abuse is justified and the friend's angry accusation that the narrator is responsible for encouraging the split.
The core question for debate is whether the narrator was wrong (AITAH) for directly telling their friend that the wife is completely justified in leaving him, especially since the narrator believes the marriage should have ended the moment the physical abuse occurred, versus whether this directness was an unwarranted intervention.